Under v 2.20.47, when selling a Primary Home property in 2017 annual Consumption goes up from $87,516 to $137,714 (in 2017, a Saving increase of $646,798 net of sale); post-sale increase to Consumption is to be expected. However, the years previous to the 2017 sale (2012 thru 2106) also show Consumption = $137,714; this is counter-intuitive. Why would Consumption increase in years prior to the sale year?
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I can't think of a reason that the software would "anticipate" income as you seem to be suggesting. It's due to something else.
Look at the total spending report and the net worth report, and at your inputs. There may be other things influencing the changes you see. ESPlanner tries to smooth out spending (which is mostly the point). See how smooth the net worth is. Obviously, sometimes changes in spending, such as when a child or two finish college or a home is sold, an inheritance arrives - you can see a "bump" up or down.
The software is working perfectly. The program is using all resources in the present and coming in the future to produce the highest and smoothest living standard. If you tell the program you are getting extra money in the future from working it will raise your living standard starting this year if you aren't borrowing constrained and can, effectively, get at the future money. The same is true here except the extra money is coming from the future sale sof the house.
Thank you...this makes sense. This realization is an eye opener, and points out that I have to free my thinking from the shackles of scenario modeling, in that it also illustrates the essence of consumption smoothing and present vs. future valuing.